A question from Mark Seidenberg:
Is the English phono- morpheme etymologically related to Phoenicia/Phoenician, i.e., the corresponding Phoenician words?
I have looked at the OED and other sources and I cannot connect the dots.
The Phoenician word for “Phoenicia” has a couple of conjectured etymological bases unrelated to sound or voice.
The Greeks then had a word (morpheme?) phono that was related to sound/voice, which English and other languages absorbed.
Is it a coincidence that the Greek word happened to sound like name for the language whose writing system they borrowed, the inadequacies of which for representing the typologically distinct Greek language led to the identification of vowels, which could then be written by repurposing letters for a few consonants that occurred in P but not G. or so they say.
Is this an homage to Phoenicia or are these false phonological cognates?
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